what is the missing justification in the proof of the pythagorean identity below, sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1, using a right triangle?

a. transitive property of equality
b. substitution property of equality
c. reflexive property of equality
d. symmetric property equality,

Ifound this on google “that means that the graph of a function with direct variation has these features: it is a straight line: because the slope is the ratio y/x = k. it passes through the origin (0,0): because y = kx = k (0) = 0.” i hope this you for what your looking for

What’s your question.