Why does Frederick Douglass claim that without the right to vote, the black man’s “liberty is a mockery”?

because he sees the black man didnt have much

Explanation:

rosevelt. 1973. "slaves everywhere"

the right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "their policy of "divide and rule" pitted political groups against each other to keep any one group from becoming too powerful.  " the  participant in european imperialism is being described below is that  their policy of "divide and rule" pitted political groups against each other to keep any one group from becoming too powerful.