Which reason was not why most industrialized nations of the late nineteenth and early twentieth
centuries competed for overseas colonies?
they needed the colonies natural resources,
they wanted to bring their religion to backward peoples
they needed new lands for their growing populations.
they needed new markets where they could sell their manufactured goods.

They wanted to bring their religion to backward peoples

Explanation:

Colonies, already in ancient times, were used as sources of products and labor for the metropolises (Rome, Phoenicia). In the 16-18 centuries, the colonial policy of European merchants and feudal lords was reduced mainly to the plunder of local wealth, the export of colonial goods, plant and animal raw materials to Europe, as well as labor for America's slave holdings. Non-equivalent trade with the colonies was consumptive in nature. By the middle of the 19th century, the role of the colonies was changing: they turned into a market of industrial raw materials for developed countries, and also saved the metropolis from competition in the foreign market. In the colonial economic policy of industrialized countries, the central place was taken by the export of capital, which was many times higher than the export of goods. Crises accelerated the concentration and centralization of capital, contributed to the ruin of weak and inefficient enterprises. From this point of view, they contributed to the development of the economy, increasing its competitiveness. At the same time, causing an increase in unemployment, aggravation of social conflicts, they created serious problems for industrial countries. Crises pushed the ruling circles of industrialized countries to attempt to solve social and economic problems through external expansion.

they could have a boston tea party.

if it were me, i would pick c. c is the best answer because it's basically saying go on a non-violent strike for india