A researcher conducts two experiments. In Experiment 1, he manipulates whether participants attend a small, medium, or large private event. In Experiment 2, he manipulates whether participants attend a small, medium, or large public event. The mean difference between the groups is the same in each experiment, but Experiment 2 is associated with greater error variance. In which experiment is the researcher more likely to conclude that the mean difference is caused by the manipulation?

Experiment 1

Explanation:

Mean difference: The term "mean difference" is also written as "difference in mean" and is described as a "standard statistic" that tends to measure the "absolute difference" between specific mean value in two different groups associated in a clinical trial. However, the mean difference is responsible for estimating the amount through which the "experimental intervention" ought to change the outcome on average as compared with the "control".

In the question above, the given statement represents that the researcher will conclude that in the experiment one mean difference is being caused by manipulation.

i dont know sorry why dont you looking it up on google