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Social Studies, 05.11.2019 06:31 gchippewa81

Why do you think smith depicts the amerindians as "savage devils"? is it just cultural biases that are driving his opinions, or could he be thinking of his audience in england? if so, imagine you are a reader in 1624. how would his descriptions affect you? why do you think it was so difficult at that time to see the amerindians as human beings?

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