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Physics, 21.07.2021 01:00 keagank

Mill writes that when Kant "begins to deduce from this precept (the Categorical Imperative) any of the actual duties of morality, he fails, almost grotesquely, to
show that there would be any contradiction, any logical (not to say physical)
impossibility, in the adoption by all rational beings of the most outrageously
immoral rules of conduct. All he shows is that the consequences of their universal
adoption would be such as no one would choose to incur” (183).
What does Mill mean by this? How should we understand the distinction between
logical/physical impossibility and consequences "no one would choose to incur”?

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Answers: 1

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Mill writes that when Kant "begins to deduce from this precept (the Categorical Imperative) any of...
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