If a simple machine could be frictionless, how would its ima and ama compare?

They would be equal

Explanation:

The IMA (Ideal Mechanical Advantage) of a machine is equal to the maximum mechanical advantage of a machine, and it is given by:

where is the distance of the input force while is the distance of the output force.

The AMA (Actual Mechanical Advantage) is equal to the mechanical advantage of the machine when including energy lost due to friction, and it is given by

where is the output force and the input force.

In a simple machine which is frictionless, as in this problem, there is no loss of energy, so the work in input is equal to the work in output:

Re-arranging this equation, we get

which is equivalent to

So, the AMA is equal to the IMA for a frictionless machine.

mass and volume are the answers you are looking for

russian is not my first language, so i'm afraid i can't write out an answer in russian, but hopefully you can find a way to do so. here's my best translation of the problem: you're given a plot of a particle's position in one-dimensional space over time, and you're asked to find either the total distance traveled by the particle after 6 seconds had elapsed, or the total displacement of the particle after 6 seconds.

if you want the total distance traveled, you would first need to determine the particle's velocity as a function of time, then integrate that over the 6-second interval. we know the position function is quadratic with roots at 0 and 6, so we have

where is unknown. because the position is parabolic, there is symmetry about the midpoint at , and we know that

so that the position function is

which means the velocity is

then the total distance traveled is

so the total distance traveled is 20 m.

on the other hand, if you want to find displacement: the particle starts at and ends at , so its displacement is 0.