John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide both sides by a negative number. complete the example that disproves john's statement. if you divide both sides of −3z ≥ 0 by −3, you get z ≥ can anyone ? : )

answer: a

step-by-step explanation:

b: |12 – x| ≤ 0.25

step-by-step explanation:      

let x be the possible lengths in inches, of the ribbons jaime cut.

we have been given that jaime is cutting strips of ribbon for a project. he tries to cut each piece to be 12 inches long, but sometimes he cuts it too long or too short by as much as 0.25 inch.  

we can represent this information in an inequality as:

by the definition of absolute value function we will get,

upon combining our inequalities we will get,

therefore, the inequality   describes all the possible lengths (x), in inches, of the ribbons jaime cut.

step-by-step explanation: