Can you give me the answer to this?

option a, c,d are correct.

step-by-step explanation:

from the given figure, it is given that z is equidistant from the sides of the triangle rst, then from triangle tzb and triangle szb, we have

tz=sz(given)

bz=zb(common)

therefore, by rhs rule,δtzb ≅δszb

by cpctc, sz≅tz

also, from δctz and δasz,

tz=sz(given)

∠tcz=∠saz(90°)

by rhs rule, δctz ≅ δasz, therefore by cpctc, ∠ctz≅∠asz

also,from δasz and δzsb,

zs=sz(common)

∠zbs=∠saz=90°

by rhs rule, δasz ≅δzsb, therefore, by cpctc, ∠asz≅∠zsb

hence, option a, c,d are correct.

guess at question:

a vertical line intersects the graph of g(x,y) = 0 at two points. what conclusion follows about the function f(x) implicitly defined by g(x,f(x)) = 0?

the domain of f(x) cannot include the x coordinate of any such vertical line.

informally, f(x) is not a function, and

g(x,y)=0 cannot be solved for y uniquely.

the relation r = {(x,y) such that g(x,y) = 0} is a function if

for all (a,b) ∊ r and (c,d) ∊ r, a=c implies b=d.

step-by-step explanation: