Take the Laplace transform of the following initial value and solve for Y(s)=L{y(t)}: sin(π t), 0 ≤ t <1
y''+9y= { y(0)=0, y′(0)=0
0, 1 ≤ t
a) Y(s)= ? (Hint: write the right hand side in terms of the Heaviside function)
b) Now find the inverse transform to find y(t)= ? . (Use step(t-c) for uc(t) .)
Note= π/ (s^2+π^2)(s^2+9) = π/ π^2 -9 (1/(s^2+9) - 1/(s^2+ π^2)

idkit the do u know da way and ligma consumed ninja

step-by-step explanation:

just keep asking questions until you have a better understanding.

step-by-step explanation:

statement #3: proof- ang is congruent to ang ecd : angles are congruent.  

step-by-step explanation:

1: the missing angles in statement #3  

a.) acb  

reason- the reason why the answer is acb is because angle ecd and angle acb are both the same size *that's what the word congruent means this is really simple.  

2: the missing word in reason #3  

c.) vertical  

reason- the reason why the answer is vertical is because the angles in that diagram on figure 2 is slanted, which is vertical, and the e and a both lay on vertical lines. along with the other's, but e and a are the 2 main points you want to focus on. and c is kind of like your starting point, because c is for both angles, not just one.  

i hope that was and understanding.

yes, i think so although i am not sure. this is a very strange question.