If the statement "if it is midnight, then the sun is not shining" is assumed to be true, is its reverse, "if the sun is not shining, then it is midnight," also always true?
a. no
b. yes

No

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a case of affirming the consequent fallacy. This formal fallacy has the form:  

P -> Q

Q

P

The name affirming the consequent derives from using the consequent, Q, to conclude the antecedent P.

In this case, P is "it is midnight" and Q is "the sun is not shining", and the statement is false because the cause of the sun is not be shining could be, for example, an eclipse, not because is midnight

the answer is 45 i just did it on oddesy ware

answer: this is not a question

step-by-step explanation: this is a answer