Answer 9-10 please. hurry

80π/3 or about 83.775

step-by-step explanation:

since a cone is 1/3 of a cylinder, we need to find the base's area. since area = πr^2, we get 16π. then, multiplying this by 5, we get 80π. dividing by 3, since the cone's volume is 1/3 of that of a cylinder's, we get 80π/3.

hope this !

yes because there is exactly one y value for every x value

for function there can't be more than one value for every x value

throw the computer

step-by-step explanation: