What is the reason for the step taken from the proof below? 2 1 and 2 2 are vertical angles
Given
21 22
?
Congruent Complements Theorem
Linear Pair Postulate
Congruent Supplements Theorem
Vertical Ángles Theorem

The reason for the step taken from the proof is vertical angles theorem.

Vertically opposite angles are equals.

Therefore,

if ∠1 and 2 are vertical angles, they are equal.

This means the angles are congruent and are the same.

Therefore,

∠1 ≅ ∠2 follows the vertical angle theorem

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Option (4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Vertical angles theorem;

"Two vertically opposite angles formed by the intersection of two straight lines are congruent"

By this theorem,

If ∠1 and ∠2 are the vertical angles                            Given

∠1 ≅ ∠2                                                                Vertical angles theorem

Therefore, Option (4) is the correct option.

the monthly balance will be $75,000

rick has $1400 and sally has $1500

step-by-step explanation:

to find amount of money rick has after 10 years :

principal = $1000 , time = 10 years , rate = 4% annually

to find amount of money sally has after 10 years :

her friend gives to pay her $50 per year, therefore money she has after 10 years = 50 × 10 = $500

also, sally gets $1000 after 10 years,

therefore, total amount of money sally has after 10 years = 500 + 1000 = $1500

so, after 10 years : rick has $1400 and sally has $1500