The function f(x) = In(x) has a domain of all real numbers greater than zero and a range of all real numbers. The inverse of this function is f-?(x) = ell. Which conclusion can be drawn by comparing the two functions?

The domain of f(x) is all real numbers and the range is all real numbers.

The domain of f(x) is all real numbers greater than 0 and the range is all real numbers.

The domain of f-1(x) is all real numbers and the range is all real numbers greater than 0.

The domain off-1(x) is all real numbers greater than 0 and the range is all real numbers greater than 0.

The domain of f-1(x) is all real numbers and the range is all real numbers greater than 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

The inverse function of f(x) = ln(x) is:

f-1(x) = exp(x).

And as:

The domain of f(x) is: x ∈ R, x > 0.

The range of f(x) is: x ∈ R

Then for the inverse, we should have the opposite:

The domain of f-1(x) is: x ∈ R  (the exponential function does not have any problems like the logarithm, so you can actually input any real value).

The domain is: x ∈ R, x > 0.l

Because, for example:

e^0 = 1

e^-1 = 1/e > 0.

e^-n = 1/e^n > 0.

e^x is always positive, then the range is the set of all real numbers large than zero.

c

step-by-step explanation:

i think because what else can be a sample of every member