Determine whether the statement (p∧(p⟶q))⟶q is a tautology one time by using truth table and the other time without using truth table

It is.........................................................

One way to prove this without a truth table is to use a conditional proof. We assume the portion p ^ (p --> q). If that's true, then so is p and p-->q

Using p and p-->q, the modus ponens rule allows us to derive q. It says that if p is true and p --> q, then q must be true as well.

Since we arrive at q, we have found the conclusion we're after. The assumption (p ^ (p-->q)) leads to q, and therefore the entire statement (p ^ (p-->q)) --> q is true for any combination of p,q.

2160ft3

step-by-step explanation:

the answer is d on edge

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