PLEASE HELP A bag contains red and blue marbles, such that the probability of drawing a blue marble is 3/8 An experiment consists of drawing a marble, replacing it, and drawing another marble. The two draws are independent. A random variable assigns the number of blue marbles to each outcome. What is the probability of drawing one blue marble?

15/64

Step-by-step explanation:

3 blue

5 red marbles.

since the marble is put back in, the denominator will not change,

so to draw ONE marble, the chances would be

chances of picking a blue marble 3/8

chances of picking a red marble 5/8

3/8 * 5/8 - 15/64

please mark me .

The probability of drawing one blue marble is 3/8 because you have three blue marbles out of a total of eight marbles. The probability of drawing a second blue marble is also 3/8 but since you have to draw both marbles consecutively you have to multiply the probabilities of drawing each marble. So,

3/8•3/8 = 9/64.

Now you need to change it to a percent.

We do this by

9/64 x 100 = 14% approx

x = 23.78

step-by-step explanation:

5x + 5

step-by-step explanation:

you should always add the diagrams and graphs we cannot see. this particular question is kind of borderline because we can make a graph for you.

(f + g)x = -x^2 +3x + 5 + x^2 + 2x

(f + g)x = 5x + 5

the graph of z = 5x + 5 is shown below. always use desmos when in doubt.