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Mathematics, 15.04.2020 00:15 lostcharmedone01

Let f be a function defined for t ā‰„ 0. Then the integral ā„’{f(t)} = [infinity] eāˆ’t f(t) dt 0 is said to be the Laplace transform of f, provided that the integral converges. to find ā„’{f(t)}. (Write your answer as a function of s.) f(t) = t sin(t)

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Let f be a function defined for t ā‰„ 0. Then the integral ā„’{f(t)} = [infinity] eāˆ’t f(t) dt 0 is said...
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