Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

There’s is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

It’s inverse does not have any x-intercepts

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is 200

step-by-step explanation:

the way the question is worded, it seems to imply the $264 interest is simple interest, not compound interest.

the simple interest for 2 years is $264; the simple interest for 1 year is $132.

$132 interest on a $600 investment means an interest rate of (132/600)*100 = 22%.

the value of $200 at 22% interest compounded annually for three years is

200%281.22%29%5e3

the amount of interest is that value, minus the original $200.