Mathematics, 09.04.2020 20:59 highschoolkid621

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log42
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

Answers: 2

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More questions: Mathematics Another questions

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log42 does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts. Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

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Another question on Mathematics

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log42
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.