Which of the following explains why f(x) = log2x
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the function

This function can be written as:

As the rule tells s that

so

As we know that the value of x=0 at y-intercept.

For any value of , this statement is false as there is no power of 2 that is equal to 0.

Also

Lets interchange x and y in the equation  to find the inverse of the function.

So, it doesn't have any x-intercepts as for any value of x, the value of can not be zero for this function.

Therefore, Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

it has the same slope and a different y-intercept

hope this : )

median is the value separating the higher half of a data sample, a population or probablity distribution from the lower half.

step-by-step explanation:

say you have 3,8,7,3,1,9,8 order them from lowest to highest

if orderd it would be 1,3,3,7,8,8,9 now you take away from the lowest and the highest until you end up in the middle.

so you would remove the 1 and 9 leaving you with 5 digits remaining

when you've reached the middle that would be your answer so in this case the answer is 7

if there were two numbers left say 7 and 5 you'd and them together so 12 then divide by 2 witch would equal 6 so the answer would be 6

good luck on that project hoped i you at all