Mathematics, 19.02.2020 00:23 mgollaoutlaw35
Which of the following best explains whether
1/2 or 1 is the better estimate of 36/40?
A.
20
40
=
1
2
and
40
40
=
1
. Since 36 is less than 40,
36
40
is closer to
1
2
than it is to 1.
B.
20
40
=
1
2
and
40
40
=
1
. Since 36 is closer to 20 than it is to 40,
36
40
is closer to
1
2
than it is to 1.
C.
20
40
=
1
2
and
40
40
=
1
. Since 36 is exactly halfway between 20 and 40,
36
40
is as close to
1
2
as it is to 1.
D.
20
40
=
1
2
and
40
40
=
1
. Since 36 is closer to 40 than it is to 20,
36
40
is closer to 1 than it is to
1
2
.
Answers: 2
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Which of the following best explains whether
1/2 or 1 is the better estimate of 36/40?
...
1/2 or 1 is the better estimate of 36/40?
...
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