Consider there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time. Therate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%. What is the probability that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachin?

0.03333

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.

Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3

The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.

Machine             I                     II              III                  total

Faulty              0.10                0.20        0.05

Prob                0.3333           0.3333    0.3334             1

Faulty*prob    0.03333         0.06666  0.16665         0.26664

Thus probability  that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine

= 0.03333

81 seats

step-by-step explanation:

if you multiply 0.65 times 125 then you get 81.5 seats. well since you can't have half of a seat you have to round down and get 81 seats in the no children zones. that leave 44 seats outside of the no children zone.

option c) graph of line going through 1, 4 and 3, 10

step-by-step explanation:

let y equal to margo's coin collection

let x equal to number of years

at the begining x=0, y=1 → point=(x,y)→point=(0,1)

she adds 3 coins per year, then y=1+3x

at x=1, y=1+3(1)=1+3→y=4→point=(x,y)→point=(1,4)

at x=3, y=1+3(3)=1+9→y=10→point=(x,y)→point=(3,10)

the graph of line going through (1, 4) and (3, 10), then the option c is the correct.