In the casino game of roulette, a $1 bet on red pays $2 with probability 18/38 and $0 with probability 20/38. so if x denotes the net winnings on a single bet, the distribution of x is given by

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to take the payment and substract $1 from them, corresponding to the bet cost. With this in mind, you will win $1 with probability 18/38 = 9/19 and you will lose $1 with probability 20/38 = 10/19. With this in mind, the distribution of X is given by the following probability mass function, with range {-1,1}

sorry, i can't understand your question. will later if you describe more clearly!

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