Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam does not have a y-intercept? check all that apply. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. there is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. stay its inverse does not have any x-intercepts. its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given function is .

Now we need to find about  why f(x) does not have a y-intercept. And check all that apply from given choices:

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

By definition of log function we know that log(x) is not defined for negative of 0 value of x.

if x can be written in exponent form as a power of the base of log then exponent goes to the front of log. So the given log function can have y-intercept only if the exponent is 0. But we know that no power of the base (4) gives output 0. Hence correct choice is :

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

step-by-step explanation:

step-by-step explanation: