What's the answer on this 1+1×1-1÷1?

answer: the answer is one

step-by-step explanation:

pemdas, in this situation there is no parenthesis or exponents so you go to multiplication, 1x1=1, then division 1/1= 1 then addition 1+1=2 then subtraction 2-1=1

amount of oatypop that contains the prize = 40%

amount   of oatypop which doesn't contain the prize = (100-40)=60%

probability that hannah will win a prize

    = s +f s +f f s+ff   f s+ff f f s+ infinity.where f= failure,s= success

=   or 60%

probability that hannah only has to buy 3 or less boxes before getting a prize= (s) and ( f s) and (ff s) and (f f f s)

        = = 87.04 %  

step-by-step explanation:

d

step-by-step explanation: