Which statements are true about the graph of the system of linear inequalities? check all that apply. y > 3x – 4 y < x + 1 the graph of y > 3x − 4 has shading above a dashed line. the graph of y < x + 1 has shading below a dashed line. the graphs of the inequalities will intersect. there are no solutions to the system. the graphs of the two inequalities intersect the y-axis at (0, 1) and (0, 4).

Step-by-step explanation:

y > ... means the shading will be above the corresponding line.

y < ... means the shading will be below the corresponding line.

These lines have different slopes, so the solution spaces must overlap, hence there must be solutions to the system.

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Comment on last choice

It isn't clear exactly what is intended by the last offered statement. Both of the listed points are in the solution space of y > 3x-4. Neither point is in the solution space of y < x+1.

Together, the two graphs intersect the entire y-axis. Jointly, they only intersect the y-axis on the interval -4 < y < 1.

The y-intercepts of the two boundary lines are (0, 1) and (0, -4). Neither of these points is in the solution space of the system of inequalities.

the answer   is 200

step-by-step explanation:

this is a problem about poisson probabilities.   i don't know if you've

already studied poisson distributions, or if you have a place to look

to read more about the subject.  

here's how you can see a poisson distribution coming.   when there are

a lot of events that may happen at any time (or any place), and when

you're counting how many of them happen at a particular time (or a

particular place), and each event is independent of the others, then

the result is a poisson distribution.   this is roughly true for the

chocolate chips; one chip being in a cookie has only a small effect on

the probability that another chip will be in the cookie.

once you know you have a poisson distribution, you know a lot.   there

is only one parameter to a poisson distribution, so if you know the

mean, you know everything.   the form of the distribution is

  probability of n chips = {[e^(-x)]*(x^n)} / (n! )

answer:  

step-by-step explanation:

odd numbers are only divisible by 1 and itself.

even numbers are divisible by more than 1 and itself.

for example 6 is even because it is divisible by more than 1 and its self. 1 x 6= 6 ; 2 x 3= 6

and 7 is odd because only 7 x 1 equals seveb