If a function is one-to-one, then its inverse is a function. true or false?

Yes, the inverse would be a function. Allow me to explain.

A function has an input x and an output y. An inverse function simply reverses the function. So for a 1:1 function, for every time x goes up by one, y also goes up one. So for the inverse of the function, it is the opposite. If I am not mistaken, every time y would go up one, x would go down one, and vice versa. That is the only part I am not 100% sure on, so I'd stick with the answer shown below.

Yes, the inverse of a 1:1 function would also be a function.

the data of the detroit pistons in numerical order from least to greatest is 0.30, 0.37, 0.55, 0.62, 0.69, 0.72, 0.73, 0.75, 0.77, 0.78, 0.80, 0.81, 0.81, 0.83, 0.84, 0.89

the data of the miami heat in numerical order from least to greatest is 0.50, 0.50, 0.56, 0.57, 0.67, 0.72, 0.72, 0.72, 0.75, 0.75, 0.76, 0.81, 0.82, 0.90, 1.00, 1.00

the detroit pistons median : 1.52

the miami heat median: 1.47

the iqr of this data is 0.05