World war 1 is generally considered to be the first instance of total war, where every of-age citizen and all possible resources are mobilized in the war effort. in light of this, do you believe britain’s blockade of germany—which eventually extended to all goods, thereby violating international law—was justified? explain your opinion

In my personal opinion I do not justify the blocking measure adopted by the British government, because despite being at war, the consequences were assumed by the entire German population, men, women and children. All alike suffered the effects of hunger and a series of chronic diseases ranging from simple flu and dysentery, to more serious afflictions such as typhus, tuberculosis and scurvy. As food became scarcer, German civilians began to act instinctively to feed themselves, and in many cases this need dominated their entire lives. In the end, millions of people sought to obtain what they and their families needed to survive, committing illicit acts such as stealing and assaulting other citizens in their never-ending quest to feed themselves, that is, a loss of moral and ethical values, leaving the animal instinct of survival.

Ifound this on google”the munich conference of 1938 was prompted by d. hitler's intention to take control of part of czechoslovakia. hitler sought to unite german-speaking people in a single nation and thus turned his sights on the sudetenland, a german-speaking region of czechoslovakia.” i hope it you

The answer is c. good luck : )