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History, 23.04.2021 04:30 mike2910

Need help please During the early phases of both World War I and II, the United States refused to formally
participate, with many politicians stating that the wars were, in fact, "European
squabbles". To what extent is this characterization of these wars accurate? Are the first
and second world wars truly global crises in that countries all over the world actively
and willfully chose to participate), or are they European wars that demonstrate the
fundamental flaws of Imperialism (in that the international communities were forced
into participating by European colonial authorities, thus needlessly expanding what were
"European squabbles")? Give reasons and examples to support your answer.

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