Why did the emancipation proclamation free slaves only in confederate states? a president lincoln did not have the authority to remove property from u. s. citizens. b president lincoln did not have the authority to naturalize northern freedmen into citizens. c northern legislatures had already passed legislation blocking emancipation. d northern legislatures had already passed the emancipation proclamation.

I think D: Northern legislatures had already passed the Emancipation Proclamation is your best bet. Lincoln didn't have the right to give the executive order in the states that had congressional representation which was strictly the Union . However, in the rebellious states (the south) he was able to impose his authority over them because they were technically looked at as having committed treason against the Union. Does that make sense?

Hopefully this helped and good luck.

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