Which of the following explains why the munich agreement is an example of appeasement?

it resulted in the german invasion of other european countries.
it resulted in the german invasion of italy.
the participants gave hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.
the participants denied hitler permission to take the sudetenland.

The participants gave Hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.

Further Explanation:-

The Munich Agreement was signed by British and French Prime Ministers with Nazi Leader Adolf Hitler. This agreement was made to avert the possible war and Czechoslovakia was given away to the Germans under this agreement. After this agreement, Hitler made an announcement that this was his last claim of any territory in Europe and the choice he made was viewed to be between War and Appeasement. After many years this agreement came into effect, This was seen as a failed act of appeasement.  

Just before this agreement was due to take place, the government of Czechoslovakia relied on the support of France and Britain as they were having alliance with both these countries and the Soviet Union was also ready to back Czechoslovakia due to its alliance with them and Soviets also showed some indications to support Czechoslovakia if they got cooperation from Britain and France but the potential of Soviet Union was ignored and Czechoslovakia was given to Germans with hope of Peace.  

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Answer details:

Grade – High School

Subject – History

Chapter – Munich Agreement  

Keywords –Munich, Czechoslovakia, Germany, Britain, France, Soviet Union, Agreement, Adolf Hitler, Alliance, Appeasement.  

charles lindbergh hope this

the correct answer is d- trough trades

i did a test and got it right

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