Why is the period between the fall of Rome and 1000 C. E. referred to as the Dark Ages? Are the Dark Ages the appropriate name for the period? Why or why not? Justify your reasoning with at least five specific examples.

In the years following 476 A.D., various Germanic peoples conquered the former Roman Empire in the West (including Europe and North Africa), shoving aside ancient Roman traditions in favor of their own. The negative view of the so-called “Dark Ages” became popular largely because most of the written records of the time (including St. Jerome and St. Patrick in the fifth century, Gregory of Tours in the sixth and Bede in the eighth) had a strong Rome-centric bias.

Explanation:

the government paid religious orders to provide basic education to native american children on reservations. in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, the bureau of indian affairs (bia) founded additional boarding schools based on the assimilation model of the off-reservation carlisle indian industrial school.