why didn't the USSR respond with force to the East German and Polish revolts, as they had back in the 50s and 60s?

In opposition to the translations of US intelligence, no arrangements were in progress for even negligible Soviet mediation at the time martial law was forced, as per declassified Soviet archives. On 25 August 1980, an uncommon commission was made in Moscow to figure strategy because of advancements in Poland. It was going by senior Socialist Coalition ideologist Mikhail Suslov, and included KGB administrator Yuri Andropov, unfamiliar clergyman Andrei Gromyko, and safeguard serve Dmitriy Ustinov. They were hesitant to mediate in Poland, reviewing the 1970 Clean fights, and managing issues in the continuous Soviet Afghan War.

The circumstance in Poland in December 1980 had matches with the circumstance in Afghanistan before the Soviet Association in the long run chose to mediate there precisely a year sooner, which prompted results and a deep Soviets' relations with the US.

Explanation:

The Polish revolts of 1980–1981, related with the development of the Fortitude mass development in Poland, tested the Soviet Association's authority over its satellite states in the Eastern Bloc.

Unexpectedly in any case, the Kremlin kept away from military intercession, not at all like on past events, for example, the Prague Spring of 1968 and the Hungarian Transformation of 1956, and along these lines left the Clean initiative under Broad Wojciech Jaruzelski to force martial law to manage the resistance all alone.

c, to compete

explanation:

i think it is in quadrant 4.

the five year plans were part of a command economy. there was little choice in what would be emphasized for the current 5 year period.

the answer to democracy or totalitarianism is a bit harder. in stalin's time, russia was totalitarian. now that's not entirely true. putin has moved towards at least the boundary.