Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain. Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?(A) Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.(B) Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice of toasting grain were their stone-lined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.(C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.(D) The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.(E) Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.

The correct answer is (C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.

Explanation:

Two events are causally related if one of the events causes the other, which means one event originates the other. This relationship is suggested between the use of yeast and the introduction of a new variety of wheat in Ancient Egypt, which is explained in "That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety". Moreover, this is better supported by the evidence "Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten..." because the use of the new variety of wheat caused gluten was not destroyed in the process and this was the origin of leavened bread and the use of yeast.

the phenomenon that would be cited as evidence of increased economic interdependence between europe and the americas is  the development of mercantilism.

this theory suggests that the wealth of a country depends on its economic assets, or capital.

hope this : )

for the 2 countries u can do china and america because america has a democratic government while china has a communist government.

a democracy is a government run by the people either by directly voting or indirectly by electing representatives. an oligarchy is a government run by a few or a small group of people. a democracy and oligarchy are similar because both in an oligarchy and an indirect democracy, a small group of induvial determine the laws for a large group of people they are different because in an oligarchy it is easier to control and they do not have to answer to a large number of people in the country, unlike a democracy where they do have to answer to a large number of people an county that is a democracy would be the united states. a country that is an oligarchy would be the china.