What does Kant claim is the supreme principle of morality? Clearly state the principle, and explain how Kant thought we could apply it to determine the morality of actions. What do you think is the most powerful objection to this principle? Can this objection be overcome?

The correct answers to these open questions are the following,

For Kant, the supreme principle of morality is Good Will. To explain this concept in simple terms, we can say that Good Will is the moral duty of an individual. It has to ever do what is right, regardless of the consequences.  For Kant, the morality of individual actions is determined for its commitment to always do good. To do that the individual has to be guided by the use of reason, the logic. The reason is what is going to motivate the Good Will of an individual.

Some authors have objected to Kant's concept using the argument of the emotions as an important component in the way people act and are influenced. This objection is difficult to overcome in that it is true that emotions play a big role in how people think, act, and react to the common things of life.

for the 2 countries u can do china and america because america has a democratic government while china has a communist government.

a democracy is a government run by the people either by directly voting or indirectly by electing representatives. an oligarchy is a government run by a few or a small group of people. a democracy and oligarchy are similar because both in an oligarchy and an indirect democracy, a small group of induvial determine the laws for a large group of people they are different because in an oligarchy it is easier to control and they do not have to answer to a large number of people in the country, unlike a democracy where they do have to answer to a large number of people an county that is a democracy would be the united states. a country that is an oligarchy would be the china.

number 1 is a)