Can targeting civilians and/or their property be justified in war? Why or why not? Include real world examples.

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No this could not be justified because there are amendments and laws set in place that go against this. These laws and also amendments were set in place when the british were doing so, it is now an amendment and is not allowed to be done in America. However it was repeated when the Vietnam war happened to the Vietnamese people

Explanation:

Its not lawful in the US.

world war i began in 1914, after the assassination of archduke franz ferdinand, and lasted until 1918. during the conflict, germany, austria-hungary, bulgaria and the ottoman empire (the central powers) fought against great britain, france, russia, italy, romania, japan and the united states (the allied powers). to new military technologies and the horrors of trench warfare, world war i saw unprecedented levels of carnage and destruction. by the time the war was over and the allied powers claimed victory, more than 16 million people—soldiers and civilians alike—were dead.

explanation:

the fifth and fourteenth amendments to the united states constitution each contain a due process clause. due process deals with the administration of justice and thus the due process clause acts as a safeguard from arbitrary denial of life, liberty, or property by the government outside the sanction of law.

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