Nixon won a tremendous landslide re-election victory in 1972, despite allowing the now very unpopular war to continue and becoming very controversial himself, so…"Does this prove a ‘silent majority" supporting him and his war strategy?" if not what else could explain his victory?

Nixon won a tremendous landslide re-election victory in 1972, his victory is due to the 60.7% popular vote in 49 states, out of 50. His speech about the Vietnam war, which aimed to end U.S. involvement in the Vietnam War allowed him to win the tremendous landslide re-election and proves his silent majority support for his war strategy.

Explanation:

Nixon believed his Vietnamization strategy, which involved building up South Vietnam's armed forces and withdrawing U.S. troops, would prepare the South Vietnamese to act in their own defense against a North Vietnamese takeover and allow the United States to leave Vietnam with its honor intact.

the process is called revolution because it was a process of great economic-social transformations that began in england in the xviii century.

the industrial mode of production spread throughout much of the northern hemisphere throughout the xix and early xx centuries.

the effect of this revolution was the distance between the countries, with respect to economic and political power.   after all, not all industrialized at the same time, remaining in the condition of suppliers of raw materials and agricultural products to the industrialized countries.

these differences mark to this day the nations of the world that are divided between developed and developing countries. one way to measure whether a country is advanced is to assess how industrialized it is.

alliances in ww1 were different from ww2 because the entente in ww1 made up of serbia,russia,france,britan,japan and italy later america  and all allied in a sort of balance of power and too keep germany,austria-hungary,and the ottomans down. russia allied the serbians in order to exert its influence in the balkans while france allied the russians because france was still in dismay and insulted after the defeat to the germans during the unification of germany and britian allied the belgians after the germans invasion of belgium.in ww2 the alliances were in a preemptive attempt to deter any further wars into happening while germany and italy allied since they were insulted and humiliated after the previous war while also sharing a similar ideology of facsim along with japan which all 3 had a want for world domination and agreed to assist one another in the endevours 

explanation: