Why did Justinian I want to reform the law of the Byzantine Empire?

A) The code needed to be collected and reorganized.

B) The code needed revisions to remove laws regarding slavery.

C) The code included ordinances, but they needed to be removed.

D) The code did not include imperial decrees, which had to be added.

A) The code needed to be collected and reorganized

Explanation:

Also known as Justinian the Great, Justinian I led the reconstruction of the Roman Empire under his reign as emperor from 527-565 AD. Through the usefulness of very capable generals, Justinian I was able to reconquer much of the western Mediterranean which was previously overtaken by the earlier Germanic invaders of Rome. There needed to be a reform in the law of the new empire as it did not reflect the transparency and standards of the Byzantine Empire and so taxes were imposed for these significant reform measures.

alliances in ww1 were different from ww2 because the entente in ww1 made up of serbia,russia,france,britan,japan and italy later america  and all allied in a sort of balance of power and too keep germany,austria-hungary,and the ottomans down. russia allied the serbians in order to exert its influence in the balkans while france allied the russians because france was still in dismay and insulted after the defeat to the germans during the unification of germany and britian allied the belgians after the germans invasion of belgium.in ww2 the alliances were in a preemptive attempt to deter any further wars into happening while germany and italy allied since they were insulted and humiliated after the previous war while also sharing a similar ideology of facsim along with japan which all 3 had a want for world domination and agreed to assist one another in the endevours 

explanation:

is this question from a book? ?