A 30-year-old woman presents without symptoms but states that her male partner has dysuria without penile discharge. Examination reveals a friable cervix covered with thick yellow discharge. This description is most consistent with an infection caused by:

The question is incomplete as it does not have the option which are:

A. Chlamydia trachomatis.

B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

C. human papillomavirus (HPV).

D. Trichomonas vaginalis.

Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Explanation:

Chlamydia and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are gram-negative bacteria which causes many diseases in humans.

The chlamydia trachomatis affects both the male and female partner but in the female, the symptoms appear later in the women's.

The symptoms mentioned in the question are also shown by the gonorrhoea infection and also the chlamydia infection. So, further tests are required to confirm the infection.  

Thus, Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae are correct.

the answer would be a." don't hit a home run when the game is tied"

so i really think that most of the health care industry be doing more bad than good.