Which statement is not a reason that shakespeare may have written the tragedy of julius caesar for the elizabethan audience?
a. shakespeare wanted to illustrate that elizabeth i and julius caesar had nothing in common.
b. shakespeare wanted to show the ways that a successful authority could be toppled by the people.
c. shakespeare wanted to make fun of a society that was also divided by status.
d. shakespeare wanted to create controversy by showing the issues that might be caused by england’s increasing power.

The correct answer is:

B. Shakespeare wanted to show the ways that a successful authority could be toppled by the people.

The statement is not a reason that Shakespeare may have written The Tragedy of Julius Caesar for the Elizabethan audience.

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hello!

unfortunately i cannot answer your question because there is no question.

to get a fast reply and accurate results, re-post (or edit) the question to add a question.

sorry!