According to Aristotle "a perfect tragedy should,... be arranged not on the simple but on the complex plan. It should, moreover, imitate actions that excite pity and fear...by the misfortune of a man like ourselves." How does Shakespeare comply with Aristotle's theory of the perfect tragedy in Hamlet's last scene?

i h avengers

answer: having more negative in their interactions with their child more or likely because of issues with stress and depression.

explanation:

teenage parents may also have less time as they juggle their responsibilities to spend with their child which can make the child feel lonesome and not enough trust was made to create a foundation between the parent and the child.

i think it may be b, i'm not exactly too sure on this. but b seems to make more sense.