Which explains a key difference between the theories of Locke and Descartes? Locke thinks that our parents alone define our ideas. Descartes believes that intellect is innate. Descartes believes that there are no innate practical principles. Locke asserts that our sense of morality is established at birth.

Option B "Descartes believe that intellect is innate" would be the correct option.

Explanation:

Both the European thinkers why anyone in the seventeenth century formulated interesting insights into the human experience as well as intelligence in the particular circumstance of Descartes, and even in the scenario of Locke throughout the 18th.While the theories relating to relevant topics have been suggested by both philosophers, whose thoughts varied greatly, Descartes assumed that information was connected to a set of concepts that are inherent in humans and that perceptions became intangible and therefore shouldn't be respected.Across the other contrary, Locke believed that there had been no inherent intellect but rather philosophies even though it was the opportunity and indeed the perception that helped living creatures to teach pronunciation.

Therefore a crucial distinction amongst Locke's versus Descartes' views is whether Descartes claims whether the rationality is inherent, although Locke claims that it becomes not inherent but related to their senses.

The answer is ink because it has to soke in the paper so i believe the answer is b.ink 

Answer the awkward tilt of the room and the linear brushstrokes on the floor (encourage the viewer into the space) this is all i could find, so plz check if it is right or wrong/// good luck